May 2, 2023 20:10
1 yr ago
30 viewers *
Spanish term
(le pertenecen) por compra a
Spanish to English
Bus/Financial
Business/Commerce (general)
I'm sure this is a simple matter but it's got me doubting myself...
The context is this A deed of incorporation stes the following in a section on who own the 3,000 shares in a company. There are two partners, we'll call them A and B.
"A es dueño de trescientas participaciones sociales, números 1 al 300 (...) Le pertenecen por compra a B formalizada en escritura autorizada por el Notario X"
"B es dueño de dos mil setecientas participaciones sociales, números 301 al 3.000 (...). Las participaciones números 301 al 900, ambos inclusive, le pertenecen por compra a A formalizada en escritura autorizada por el Notario X" It hen goes on to say where the other shares (901-3000) came from, not pertinent to this question.
(For what it's worth, it's very possible that B is A's father by the way)
It seems to me clear that in the first case A bought his shares from B and in the second case B bought them from A as it clearly states the total number of shares that each holds and the share numbers thereof. My (Spanish wife however thinks that "por compra a" means "were purchased BY" as opposed to "were purchased FROM"
Hope this makes sense. It's got me in a proper state.
The context is this A deed of incorporation stes the following in a section on who own the 3,000 shares in a company. There are two partners, we'll call them A and B.
"A es dueño de trescientas participaciones sociales, números 1 al 300 (...) Le pertenecen por compra a B formalizada en escritura autorizada por el Notario X"
"B es dueño de dos mil setecientas participaciones sociales, números 301 al 3.000 (...). Las participaciones números 301 al 900, ambos inclusive, le pertenecen por compra a A formalizada en escritura autorizada por el Notario X" It hen goes on to say where the other shares (901-3000) came from, not pertinent to this question.
(For what it's worth, it's very possible that B is A's father by the way)
It seems to me clear that in the first case A bought his shares from B and in the second case B bought them from A as it clearly states the total number of shares that each holds and the share numbers thereof. My (Spanish wife however thinks that "por compra a" means "were purchased BY" as opposed to "were purchased FROM"
Hope this makes sense. It's got me in a proper state.
Proposed translations
(English)
4 +1 | which it purchased from | philgoddard |
4 | They came into his possession as a result of their purchase | Andrew Bramhall |
3 | (belongs to them) by dint of purchase | neilmac |
Proposed translations
+1
28 mins
Selected
which it purchased from
"Comprar a" is buy from.
http://context.reverso.net/traduccion/espanol-ingles/comprar...
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Note added at 29 mins (2023-05-02 20:39:44 GMT)
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A can't be the owner if they were purchased by B.
http://context.reverso.net/traduccion/espanol-ingles/comprar...
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Note added at 29 mins (2023-05-02 20:39:44 GMT)
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A can't be the owner if they were purchased by B.
4 KudoZ points awarded for this answer.
Comment: "Thanks to everybody for their help!"
1 hr
They came into his possession as a result of their purchase
from B.
Peer comment(s):
neutral |
neilmac
: TL,DR. I prefer "dint" :)
1 day 10 hrs
|
Yep, thanks; a slightly antiquated term seldom heard these days!
|
11 hrs
(belongs to them) by dint of purchase
An option, although the term seems to survive nowadays mostly in documents from the subcontinent of India.
Example sentence:
The suit of the plaintiffs was based on title. The factum of title by dint of purchase from the lawful vendor
Plaintiffs by dint of purchase and by inheritance
Peer comment(s):
neutral |
Andrew Bramhall
: At least it covers the notion of belonging/possession absent in the first answer.
1 hr
|
Cheers :-)
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